On May 4, 2012, at 9:43 AM, wwreith wrote:
> Am I correct in assuming that the output below essentially
> translates to
> "Males have a mean time that is significantly lower than Females"?
> Is this
> the correct way to interpret the fact that the coefficient is
> negative?
I wouldn't be using exactly that phrasing since I do not think AFT
models are estimating means. I might say the "point estimate for the
time to event for Sex==Male is lower than for the Female". You should
plot the predicted survival curves. I also do not think the
inferential statistics allow you to say that the difference is
"significantly different". Your z-stat is only -1.28 and your p-value
is only 0.202.
--
David Winsemius, MD
Heritage Laboratories
West Hartford, CT
______________________________________________
[hidden email] mailing list
https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-helpPLEASE do read the posting guide
http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.htmland provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.